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Med/Surg Exam 1

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Last updated about 2 years ago
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Question 1
1.
What are the implications of IV therapy? _______
Question 2
2.

What type of IV solution is Hypotonic?

Question 3
3.

What is the definition and an example of Hypertonic solution?

Question 4
4.

What are 0.9% NS, D5W, and Lactated Ringers

Question 5
5.

How many mL are in Whole Blood?

Question 6
6.
_______ Have most of the plasma removed and only contains 285-300ml.
Question 7
7.

What blood products are WBC, Improves ability to fight infection, and must be transfused in 48hrs of collection?

Question 8
8.

Albumin:

Question 9
9.
_______ Is a mixture of clotting agents, treats blood clotting disorders, and diluted with NS with an infusion time of 4-6hrs.
Question 10
10.
_______ Is separated from blood cells within 8hrs after collection and is frozen.
Question 11
11.

What tubing is used to transfuse blood and blood products?

Question 12
12.

What Type of Cath is placed 3-6in above or below the armpit?

Question 13
13.

____ Is used to provide TPN, monitor central venous pressure, admin irritating medications, and used only when peripheral veins have collapsed.

Question 14
14.

When is IV tubing replaced

Question 15
15.

DIAGNOISE S/S: Elevated BP, SOB, Bounding Pulse, anxiety

Question 16
16.

S/S: Redness, warmth and discomfort along vein.

Question 17
17.

S/S: Sudden chest pain, SOB, anxiety, rapid heart rate, DROP in BP.

Question 18
18.
_______ the infusion, elevated head, provide O2 and call provider when the patient is experiencing_______
Question 19
19.
_______ IV and elevate arm when patient shows S/S of _______
Question 20
20.
Place patient on L side in Trendelenburg position, CALL FOR HELP, provide O2, and stay with patient when patient has S/S of _______
Question 21
21.
When administering _______ you must ask for _______ allergy and wean client before D/C to avoid a _______ in _______
Question 22
22.

What labs need to be monitored while a patient is receiving TPN?

Question 23
23.

S/S: Hypotension, tachycardia, back pain, flushing, and DIB.

Question 24
24.

What do you do when a febrile reaction to a blood transfusion occurs?

Question 25
25.

Reduce rate of infusion, elevate head, call provider, and admin diuretic for this reaction?

Question 26
26.
What must be sent to the lab after an incompatibility reaction occur? _______
Question 27
27.
_______ _______ _______ _______ _______ _______ Are the methods of transmission
Question 28
28.
_______ do NOT elevate WBC
Question 29
29.
Mucous membranes, GI/GU Tract, Respiratory Tract, Broken Skin, and Blood are_______
Question 30
30.

Select the patient with SEPSIS

Question 31
31.
A patient with severe sepsis has a lactic acid _______ than 2 and must receive _______ and _______ within 1 hour of discovery.
Question 32
32.

TB, Measles, Chickenpox require what precautions

Question 33
33.

Meningitis and Pneumonia require what precaution?

Question 34
34.

After a culture is taken, when will the initial results be ready?

Question 35
35.
Pain should be less than _______ on pain scale.
Question 36
36.
_______ is usually poorly localized and manifests as nausea, vomiting, and hypotension.
Question 37
37.
_______ Is usually treated with _______
Question 38
38.

This phase of is the impulse transmission during which the brain experiences pain at a conscious level.

Question 39
39.
_______ _______ _______ _______ are the theories of pain
Question 40
40.

Tier 1 of pain includes

Question 41
41.
Always _______ patches before putting them in _______
Question 42
42.
Monitor for _______ _______ and _______ when administering an opioid
Question 43
43.

Analgesic Adjuvants:

Question 44
44.
_______ may increase risk for serotonin syndrome when taking_______
Question 45
45.

Prednisone:

Question 46
46.
Can a nurse push the button on a PCA for the patient _______
Question 47
47.
A client must wait _______ before palliative sedation begins after consenting to process.
Question 48
48.

This procedure destroys the medial branch sensory nerve that protrudes between the spinal joints.

Question 49
49.

When should the nurse reassess a patient's pain level after administering pain medications?

Question 50
50.

When does a reaction to blood transfusion occur?

Question 51
51.
Decreased metabolism, fluid overload, delayed wound healing and formation of blood clots are complications found in _______ people.
Question 52
52.
_______ Patients may experience F&E imbalance, delayed wound healing, and infections after surgery.
Question 53
53.
_______ May cause altered respiratory functions, nutritional status, and impaired liver function complications.
Question 54
54.
_______ dysfunction may cause delayed drug metabolism leading to drug toxicity, disrupted clotting mechanisms which causes _______ _______ _______
Question 55
55.
_______ dysfunction may cause F&E imbalance, fluid overload, delayed excretion causing drug toxicity, and dysrhythmias.
Question 56
56.
_______ is responsible for educating the patient about the procedure including the risks and benefits.
Question 57
57.

How long should a patient be NPO before a procedure?

Question 58
58.
Diazepam, Atropine, and Zofran are _______
Question 59
59.
A "Time Out" must identify the right _______ _______ _______
Question 60
60.

Propofol:

Question 61
61.

What are the S/S of malignant hyperthermia

Question 62
62.

A patient recovering from anesthesia is able to move 2 extremities, breathe freely, has a BP =/- 50mmHg, is aroused with verbal stimuli and is 94% on room air. What is the Aldrete score?

Question 63
63.

This intention heals within 8-10 days.

Question 64
64.

Secondary intention is:

Question 65
65.

S/S of infection

Question 66
66.
Hx of chemo, tobacco use, and insufficient vitamin c and protein are risk factor for _______
Question 67
67.

Distended abdomen, pain, vomiting and absent bowel sounds are:

Question 68
68.

When can a patient go home after ambulatory surgery?