Med/Surg Exam 1

Last updated almost 2 years ago
68 questions
1
What are the implications of IV therapy? _______
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What type of IV solution is Hypotonic?

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What is the definition and an example of Hypertonic solution?

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What are 0.9% NS, D5W, and Lactated Ringers

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How many mL are in Whole Blood?

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_______ Have most of the plasma removed and only contains 285-300ml.
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What blood products are WBC, Improves ability to fight infection, and must be transfused in 48hrs of collection?

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Albumin:

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_______ Is a mixture of clotting agents, treats blood clotting disorders, and diluted with NS with an infusion time of 4-6hrs.
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_______ Is separated from blood cells within 8hrs after collection and is frozen.
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What tubing is used to transfuse blood and blood products?

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What Type of Cath is placed 3-6in above or below the armpit?

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____ Is used to provide TPN, monitor central venous pressure, admin irritating medications, and used only when peripheral veins have collapsed.

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When is IV tubing replaced

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DIAGNOISE S/S: Elevated BP, SOB, Bounding Pulse, anxiety

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S/S: Redness, warmth and discomfort along vein.

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S/S: Sudden chest pain, SOB, anxiety, rapid heart rate, DROP in BP.

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_______ the infusion, elevated head, provide O2 and call provider when the patient is experiencing_______
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_______ IV and elevate arm when patient shows S/S of _______
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Place patient on L side in Trendelenburg position, CALL FOR HELP, provide O2, and stay with patient when patient has S/S of _______
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When administering _______ you must ask for _______ allergy and wean client before D/C to avoid a _______ in _______
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What labs need to be monitored while a patient is receiving TPN?

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S/S: Hypotension, tachycardia, back pain, flushing, and DIB.

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What do you do when a febrile reaction to a blood transfusion occurs?

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Reduce rate of infusion, elevate head, call provider, and admin diuretic for this reaction?

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What must be sent to the lab after an incompatibility reaction occur? _______
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_______ _______ _______ _______ _______ _______ Are the methods of transmission
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_______ do NOT elevate WBC
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Mucous membranes, GI/GU Tract, Respiratory Tract, Broken Skin, and Blood are_______
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Select the patient with SEPSIS

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A patient with severe sepsis has a lactic acid _______ than 2 and must receive _______ and _______ within 1 hour of discovery.
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TB, Measles, Chickenpox require what precautions

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Meningitis and Pneumonia require what precaution?

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After a culture is taken, when will the initial results be ready?

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Pain should be less than _______ on pain scale.
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_______ is usually poorly localized and manifests as nausea, vomiting, and hypotension.
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_______ Is usually treated with _______
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This phase of is the impulse transmission during which the brain experiences pain at a conscious level.

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_______ _______ _______ _______ are the theories of pain
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Tier 1 of pain includes

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Always _______ patches before putting them in _______
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Monitor for _______ _______ and _______ when administering an opioid
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Analgesic Adjuvants:

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_______ may increase risk for serotonin syndrome when taking_______
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Prednisone:

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Can a nurse push the button on a PCA for the patient _______
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A client must wait _______ before palliative sedation begins after consenting to process.
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This procedure destroys the medial branch sensory nerve that protrudes between the spinal joints.

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When should the nurse reassess a patient's pain level after administering pain medications?

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When does a reaction to blood transfusion occur?

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Decreased metabolism, fluid overload, delayed wound healing and formation of blood clots are complications found in _______ people.
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_______ Patients may experience F&E imbalance, delayed wound healing, and infections after surgery.
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_______ May cause altered respiratory functions, nutritional status, and impaired liver function complications.
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_______ dysfunction may cause delayed drug metabolism leading to drug toxicity, disrupted clotting mechanisms which causes _______ _______ _______
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_______ dysfunction may cause F&E imbalance, fluid overload, delayed excretion causing drug toxicity, and dysrhythmias.
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_______ is responsible for educating the patient about the procedure including the risks and benefits.
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How long should a patient be NPO before a procedure?

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Diazepam, Atropine, and Zofran are _______
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A "Time Out" must identify the right _______ _______ _______
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Propofol:

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What are the S/S of malignant hyperthermia

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A patient recovering from anesthesia is able to move 2 extremities, breathe freely, has a BP =/- 50mmHg, is aroused with verbal stimuli and is 94% on room air. What is the Aldrete score?

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This intention heals within 8-10 days.

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Secondary intention is:

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S/S of infection

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Hx of chemo, tobacco use, and insufficient vitamin c and protein are risk factor for _______
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Distended abdomen, pain, vomiting and absent bowel sounds are:

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When can a patient go home after ambulatory surgery?