Pilot Closed Book MQF

1

Once a 'KNOCK IT OFF' is called, all participating aircraft will:

Acknowledge with call sign in roll call fashion

Cease tactical maneuvering and end the scenario

Deconflict flight paths

All of the above

1

Normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate. Establish fuel quantity locally or _ pounds (_ pounds for aircraft carrying 1 or more ER tank), whichever is higher.

300; 400

350; 450

400; 500

450; 550

1

Pilots will declare emergency fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with ___ pounds of fuel (measured from the header tank) or less.

200

250

300

350

1

Pilots will declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with ___ pounds of fuel or less

250

300

350

500

1

Once airborne if revised forecast steady state winds at ETA (±1 hour) exceed flight manual limits, the PIC will, if fuel state and/or mission parameters allow, adjust ETA to either _ or ____.

Overfly the forecast winds out of limits by at least one hour

Return with sufficient fuel to fly low approaches for a minimum of one hour (or as directed by local operating procedures)

1

Precipitation adversely affects aircraft performance and reduces visibility. If conditions permit, pilots should minimize exposure to all types of precipitation during all phases of flight.

True

False

1

For air-to-air operations, a coordination brief between all involved players shall include the following:

AFI 11-214 Air-to-Air Training Rules, operating area deconfliction, and FAA Special Request Approval

Emergency mission/lost link explanation, FAA special request approval, and operating area deconfliction.

Operating area deconfliction, emergency mission explanation and deconfliction, and AFI 11- 214 Air-to-Air Training Rules.

None of the above

1

Aircrews will not takeoff if __________ turbulence is reported or forecast along the planned route of flight for clear air turbulence type III aircraft:

light

severe

moderate

none of the above

1

Abort the mission, regardless of apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, if any of the following occur:

1

The PIC is the final authority on the number of people allowed in the GCS (to include visitors) during operations.

True

False

1

Aircrew will perform operations check at least _____. These checks will include fuel level, oil level, electrical, datalink, engine parameters and emergency mission status at a minimum.

once every 30 minutes

once per hour

once every two hours

once per shift

1

Change out one aircrew position at a time to ensure continuous monitoring of the aircraft. The ___ is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace aircrew positions.

incoming PIC

outgoing PIC

both A and B

None of the above

1

Aircrew will not place items (checklists, charts, etc.) behind the ___ at any time.

flap lever, condition lever, throttle, or speed lever

control stick

KVM switch

PSO

1

The fuel heater will automatically shed when aircraft voltage drops below ___ V.

23

24

25

26

1

If DEEC fails, the backup mode torque schedule limits engine power as a function of OAT and density altitude, and will not allow a command greater than ___% torque.

1

Use TERMINATE procedures when safety of flight is not a factor, and in the following cases:

1

Decreasing oil level may be an indication of an oil leak (external or internal), excessive oil consumption, or oil foaming. What are some important points to remember?

A. Minimize aircraft maneuvering and avoid excessive throttle movements.

B. Fluctuating oil pressure combined with fluctuating oil level may be an indication of a clogged oil vent line.

C. Oil leaking inside the engine compartment can ignite and burn out of control resulting in the loss of the aircraft.

D. All of the above

1

The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart shows typical continuous amperage for each device. However, momentary in-rush current can be up to ___ times as much when a unit is first turned on.

A. 1 or 2

B. 1 or 3

C. 2 or 3

D. 2 or 4

1

During a forced landing (and operating on battery power), once the landing gear is lowered, battery life may preclude another full landing gear cycle prior to a successful touchdown.

True

False

1

Which of the following aircraft components draws the highest maximum amps?

1

What is the maximum allowable EGT in flight?

A. 660 °C

B. 675 °C

C. 695 °C

D. 776 °C

1

Briefings and debriefings should take place in the following order of priority: Face to face, Telephonic/electronic, Airborne.

True

False

1

____ or lower should be used when penetrating areas of turbulence.

VA (maneuvering airspeed)

VT (threshold speed)

VNE (never exceed speed)

VS (stall speed)

1

Which item has the greatest drag index?

1

In altitude preference mode, changes to the power setting affect aircraft airspeed, while aircraft pitch responds to achieve a command altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will achieve the fastest possible airspeed while maintaining commanded altitude.

True

False

1

In speed preference mode, the aircraft adjusts pitch in an attempt to achieve the commanded airspeed and power settings are commanded to achieve the set altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will depart from the set altitude in order to maintain speed.

True

False

1

A _____ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in injury to personnel and/or loss of life if not carefully followed.

Warning

Caution

Advisory

1

____ expresses a provision that is binding.

A. Shall

B. Should and May

C. Will

1

The EPO switch disconnects ____ from the GCS.

A. all AC power

B. all AC power and UPS output

C. UPS output

D. None of the above

1

What does setting GCS Ignition to "Hot" do?

1

The EFIU monitors engine RPM received from the tach generator. If RPM drops below ____%, it automatically performs an in-flight restart.

1

RPA crew will notify the controlling agency that they are "LOST LINK."

True

False

1

If both electric fuel pumps fail, _____.

1

Batteries cannot be charged in flight.

True

False

1

The flaps are set automatically when airspeed exceeds KIAS or landing gear is up and __.

134; airspeed hold is on

110; cruise mode is on

121; altitude hold is on

100; the speed lever is full forward

1

Pilots must be alert to the possible consequences of deactivating SAS during flight. When SAS is deactivated, all safety limitations are immediately turned off.

stall protect

cruise mode

autopilot

engine over speed protection

1

With Cruise Mode ON, control sensitivity is reduced. Roll, pitch, and yaw gains are scaled with airspeed. Scaling limits roll to ±10° up to ±60° depending on airspeed.

±5°; ±40°

±10°; ±40°

±10°; ±60°

±15°; ±60°

1

Cruise mode is on when any hold mode is engaged, when stall protect is enabled, or anytime airspeed is over 120 KIAS.

1

Do not zero trims or pitch trims in flight. Doing so will result in a 125-knot airspeed hold command if airspeed hold is engaged.

True

False

1

The stall protect feature is the first level of stall protection provided by the autopilot. It automatically decambers the ailerons when AOA increases above +5º to prevent wing tips from stalling.

airspeed limit override

aileron tip stall override

stall protect

cruise mode

1

Upon lost link while jettisoning fuel, both jettison valves will remain open.

True

False

1

[2410] Stall protect is turned on and off by the pilot, but only takes effect at speeds below the limitations mentioned in the document.

1

[2410] While in the Inactive state, if AoA increases above 7 degrees it will enter the pushover state. In the pushover state, the aircraft reduces the pitch command until the AoA decreases below 3 degrees and airspeed increases above Vmin at which point it will transition to the recovery state.

True

False

1

Mission programming defaults to "fly-to" logic. For each mission leg during autonomous flight, the aircraft will use the programmed settings for the upcoming waypoint. Once the waypoint is passed, the settings for the next waypoint go into effect.

True

False

1

Lost link programming and the emergency mission will not activate if "Lost Link - OK" is set ON during an operational mission.

True

False

1

During a loss of command link, how much time passes until the RCM sends a reset command to the airborne modem?

1

If EGI or FCA ____ fails, the Ku SATCOM will not be able to aim properly, which may cause the aircraft to lose Ku-band link and go lost link.

1

2

3

4

1

The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the ___ and _, while the Ku-Band SATCOM transmissions are called _ and ___.

uplink; downlink; command link; return link

command link; return link; uplink; downlink

transmit; receive; command link; return link

command link; return link; transmit; receive

1

The IR nose camera has its own heater and fan to prevent fogging.

True

False

1

The ice detector signal stays on for _____ seconds after the ice has cleared.

30

60

45

90

1

The ____ mode (of the ARC-210) provides continuous scanning of four preset channels.

manual

scan

preset

anti-jam

1

A ____ background (on a VIT data element) indicates an abnormal condition. This generally indicates that the value is out of the normal operating parameters and should be monitored.

white

red

yellow

green

1

A ____ background (on the VIT data element) indicates a warning condition. This generally indicates the value is in a critical condition and will require corrective action.

green

yellow

red

both B and C

1

The deice system's automatic mode is intended to be used when the aircraft is operating autonomously. If the outside air temperature is less than ____, pitot heat is automatically turned on.

0 °C

15 °C

10 °C

21 °C

1

For an operational or emergency mission, when LOS TX #1 Inhibit is selected On, TX1 will be prevented from operating during that mission leg. What else is true about LOS TX Inhibit On?

This inhibit overrides any other programming and positively prevents the transmitter from operating under any circumstances

Transmitters will power up whenever triggered by later autonomous programming

Transmitters will power up whenever triggered by later autonomous programming inside of lights-on range

Transmitter frequencies will change to en route cruise settings

1

In cruise mode, avoid flying the aircraft at AOA greater than ____ degrees. A high AOA can result in divergent roll oscillations.

+2.5

+5

+7.5

None of the above

1

The engine may exceed maximum allowable EGT when disengaging Altitude Hold with the throttle in the ____ position with DEEC in Backup Mode.

Full aft

Midrange

Full forward

Full reverse

1

During an MCE gaining handover, the SATCOM command link is established when:

I say it is

The "Ku SATCOM Command Link - lost" warning message disappears

System amps increase by approximately 10 amps

Uplink signal strength increases

1

When flying without a lateral hold mode engaged, what is the maximum bank angle?

30°

5°

0°

40°

1

If executing a non-Push Button handover, it is necessary to update the datalink preset values found in Section 9; otherwise, the aircraft will retain the preset values for the losing GCS. Changing any of the preset values in the HDD will result in all presets values being resent to the aircraft; however, entering an identical value in the HDD for a preset will not update any values.

True

False

1

When executing a Push Button Handover, verify the ____ button is selected after handover data is verified.

A. Apply

B. RL TX Enable

C. ARC-210 transmit

D. DVR Record

1

It is possible for the actual nose camera lens inside the fuselage to fog during descent. Fogging of the actual nose camera lens cannot be prevented with the use of nose lens heat. The Nose IR lens heater may be used to clear the nose EO camera.

True

False

1

The UPS batteries will still be providing power if they were not turned off prior to evacuation.

True

False

1

With a left PSO rack (Pilot Station) failure or rack lock-up, the pilot has the option of sending the aircraft lost link prior to executing the PSO-1 Rack Lock-Up checklist.

True

False

1

Loss of control may be indicated by complete failure of the aircraft to respond to pilot control command. This may be caused by ____.

A. airspeed or pitot-static failure

B. catastrophic AOA failure below 134 KIAS with stall protect on, SAS failure

C. autopilot sensor failure, structural failure, or airframe icing

D. All of the above

1

A stall condition may be indicated by ____.

A. warnings on the pilot HUD

B. excessively high AOA

C. unexpected loss of altitude

D. All of the above

1

Pitot heat does not guarantee absence of ice from the pitot-static system. Moisture can freeze in the unheated areas of the system. This malfunction may be indicated by an FCA PPT sensor warning message, abnormal attitude, abnormal airspeed indications, or a combination of any of these. These conditions may result in ______.

aircraft pitch down or oscillation

loss of datalink

loss of aircraft control

All of the above

1

Roll shaping limits the roll rate for pilot roll command inputs to reduce the possibility of lost link when rapid roll movements are used.

True

False

1

Attempting to lower the gear with less than ____volts may cause a complete loss of battery power, leading to a possible loss of aircraft.

21

24

22

28

1

Do not allow the engine to windmill between _ and _percent RPM. Operation within this range may cause engine damage.

18; 28

10; 28

60; 65

50; 68

1

The air start airspeed envelope is between ____ KIAS.

100 and 160

100 and 180

150 and 200

None of the above

1

___ of the external fuel tank fuel is unusable.

1%

2%

3%

4%

1

Maximum bank angle for autopilot controlled turns in emergency missions is limited to ____. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.17 Note

A. 20°

B. 14°

C. 30°

D. 15°

1

The ATLC mission consists of ___ waypoints that define the runway and flight pattern around the airfield. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.2

A. 10

B. 7

C. 5

D. 15

1

The location of _ is based off of a _ glide slope and the height input for the waypoint. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1-132

A. WP5; 5°

B. WP3; 5°

C. WP4; 3°

D. WP6; 3°

1

After takeoff with Auto Landing Gear selected, the landing gear is commanded up when aircraft is above _ and VSI greater than _ for 3 seconds. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.5

A. 800 ft AGL; 1200 ft/min

B. 400 ft AGL; 200 ft/min

C. 500 ft AGL; 300 ft/min

D. 600 ft AGL; 800 ft/min

1

Which two files are required for ATLC operation? Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.9

A. Profile file

B. Data file

C. Runway File

D. A and C

1

Once the aircraft's groundspeed is less than or equal to ___, ATLC logic will ramp the brakes to 100% over 2403 2 seconds or 2410 1 second. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.11

A. 20 knots

B. 50 knots

C. 85 knots

D. 75 knots

1

Transition to ABORT state is not allowed once the aircraft exceeds rotation speed or the commit point, whichever comes first.

True

False

1

If a takeoff abort has been triggered, ATLC will transition to this automated state and perform the following stopping procedure which includes the following commands:

Maintain flaps at takeoff flap setting of 15 degrees

Reverse thrust is used to assist in the stopping of the aircraft while ground speed is between 20 and 85 kts

Once the aircraft's ground speed is less than or equal to 20 kts, ramp the brakes to 100% over 2 seconds

All of the above

1

Which condition is NOT required for ATLC to initialize the arming state?

Altitude>=300 ft above touchdown altitude

Crosswinds= within parameters

Airspeed>=50 KIAS

Baro-GPS Altitude difference<=300 ft

1

To perform a PILOT ABORT - TAKEOFF prior to the aircraft's rotation speed, what action does the Pilot need to take?

Reverse throttle

Command landing configuration on the control stick

Apply both brake pedals (>10%)

Press middle throttle button and pull control stick trigger

1

To perform a PILOT ABORT - LANDING, what action does the Pilot need to take?

Apply Brakes

HDD-ATLC Disable

Throttle forward

Pull back on control stick

1

The ____ is the point at which the stopping distance is greater than the distance to the rollout waypoint.

Commit point

Abort point

Takeoff point

Landing point

1

For the ATLC lost link logic, the RCM will wait __ to establish if it is a temporary or permanent dropout. If after _, the link is still severed, the RCM will declare lost link.

5 seconds; 5 seconds

3 seconds; 3 seconds

2 seconds; 2 seconds

4 seconds; 4 seconds

1

The "LRD LP DES" MTS HUD indication will be displayed when the system measures the LRD energy output at approximately %, or less of normal operating power. It __ recommended to use the LRD to designate for a laser-guided munition while under an LP condition.

50; is

60; is

80; is not

65; is not

1

If a weapon being laser guided is in flight when the LRD LP DES occurs, do not stop lasing. The LRD may still be lasing at very low power. Any chance of guidance will help prevent collateral damage resulting from an unguided weapon. Continue normal lasing procedures until weapon impact.

True

False

1

The LRD is PRF adjustable throughout the entire range of available PRF codes (-).

0000; 1999

1111; 1888

1111; 1999

0000; 1888

1

What brevity would be used if flying in clouds or an area of reduced visibility?

POPEYE

BLIND

NO JOY

SHREW

1

Which launch mode results in a more vertical attack trajectory?

LOAL-D

LOAL-L

LOAL-H

LOBL

1

Which launch mode results in a more horizontal attack trajectory?

LOAL-D

LOAL-L

LOAL-H

LOBL

1

A ____ weapon icon (on the bottom of the HUD) indicates the weapon is selected for release.

green, solid

yellow, solid

red, outlined

green, outlined

1

The minimum ripple interval for Hellfire launches is _ seconds for the same wing, and _ for opposite-wing releases.

.64; .32

.32; .64

.3; .3

.2; .3

1

What factor(s) are required for a commanded bomb to be released in CCRP mode?

RPA must be at or past the CCRP

RPA must be within 3,000 feet ground range of the CCRP

RPA course must be within 30º of the calculated run-in course (angle between aircraft course and target)

1

The M310 launcher should not be exposed to temperatures below ____º Celsius.

-40

-45

-50

-55

1

AGM-114 missiles and M310 launchers cannot be jettisoned.

True

False

1

The ____ has an increased fragmentation warhead.

AGM-114/R-2

AGM-114/P

AGM-114/R-9E

AGM-114/M-6

1

For GBU-12s, squeeze the trigger at desired release point for release mode, and prior to bomb release point for deliveries.

A. manual; CCRP

B. ballistic; CCRP

C. manual; optimal

D. CCRP; manual

1

"PRF Code Mismatch" with a yellow indicator will be present if the PRF code set on the weapon and aircraft LRD do not match. A PRF mismatch with a yellow marker will ____.

A. prevent release

B. not prevent release

C. result in a misfire

D. result in a ballistic release

1

Aircraft shall not be shut down until ____ has passed after last attempt to release forward-firing ordnance.

A. 30 minutes

B. one hour

C. two hours

D. four hours

1

Crews must positively identify the target prior to weapons release. For training sorties, crews will achieve positive identification either or by confirming through valid on-board/off-board cues.

A. verbally; visually

B. verbally; accurate coordinates

C. visually; target location

D. visually; verbally

1

Crews will perform a battle damage/weapons check of weapons stations prior to or during return to base (RTB). Additionally, crews will perform this check following _____.

A. every ops check

B. expenditure of live ordnance

C. any altitude change

D. All of the above

1

When carrying releasable ordnance, remain two switch positions away from release at all times prior to intentionally releasing live or inert ordnance. The two deselected switches will be the master arm switch and the trigger.

True

False

1

Aircrew will conduct dry attacks with the cocked LEMA/closed hooks selected while releasable freefall munitions are on the aircraft. Aircrew will not select the live or inert GBU until ready to release the live or inert ordnance.

True

False

1

Aircrew will not activate the cocked LEMA/closed hook station(s) ("fire") or other training munitions until all live or inert ordnance has been visually confirmed released with the Multi-Spectral Targeting System.

True

False

1

For inadvertent release, accomplish the following:

If able, record switch positions at the time of inadvertent release and provide to armament and safety personnel.

Safe all switches.

Record the impact point, if known.

1

Type 3 Control - Once satisfied the attacking aircraft are correlated on the appropriate target(s), the JTAC/FAC(A) will provide attacking aircraft "CLEARED TO ENGAGE" or "Type 3, CONTINUE DRY". The attack aircrew will report _______ to the JTAC/FAC(A).

"Engagement Initiated"

"Inbound Attack"

"Commencing Engagement" and "Engagement Complete"

"Target Engaged"

1

What does DEADEYE mean?

Acknowledges sighting of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor)

Acquisition of laser designation

Laser designator system inoperative

Sighting of a friendly aircraft or ground position; opposite of BLIND

1

Leaving the AGM-114 missile powered on for extended durations may do what?

decrease reliability

cause a fire

decrease the maximum range

prevent propellant ignition

1

The WEZ displayed on the tracker is only representative of simulated missile capability, not operationally constrained parameters, and should not be used to determine the firing solution.

True

False

1

Setting ripple release intervals greater than ___ may have an adverse effect on missile accuracy due to the plume from the first missile.

0.1 sec

0.32 sec

1 sec

4 sec

1

______ acknowledges sighing of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor).

TALLY

EYES ON

VISUAL

CONTACT

1

______ means the specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.

ON COORDS

CAPTURE

THUNDER

CONTACT

1

is the sighting of a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position. Opposite of .

VISUAL/BLIND

TALLY/NO JOY

CONTACT/COORDS

CAPTURE/CONTACT

1

For a LoaL-H engagement the missile attempts to maximize impact angle in an attempt to achieve a hard coded impact angle of ___?

75 °

84 °

69 °

60 °

1

What type of holding game plan should be used to keep the aircraft at a constant bearing to the target and oriented either on-axis with the run-in, or off-axis from the run-in?

Wheel

Figure Eight

Modified Figure Eight

Racetrack

1

When briefing the 'Clearance' portion in WTARSEC, this includes which of the following:

When it is expected

Clearance authority

Type of Clearance

All of the above

1

During a Straight-Through Egress maneuver, the pilot should use bank _and___ to cross-control the aircraft to fly straight over the target and slow the rate of rotation in the TGP.

Angle; roll

Angle; rudder

Pitch; angle

Rudder; angle

1

Maximum maneuvering category for RPAs is UNLIMITED as long as they remain within assigned altitude blocks.

True

False

1

All passed restrictions ____ be read back.

Will

Shall

Should

Might

1

Which of the following manners can a JTAC/FAC(A) use to provide target location during the CAS Brief (9-line)?

1

Friendly grids should not be passed if it can be avoided. If necessary, use no more than ___ digits.

4

6

8

10

1

Danger close, Final Attack Headings, and TOTs are all examples of what during the CAS Brief (9-line)?

Remarks

Restrictions

Friendly Position

Gameplan

1

Maintain safe taxi speeds at all times, not to exceed _ knots ground speed (KGS) on a taxiway, KGS on a runway, and less than __ KGS in a turn greater than 30 degrees.

A. 10; 20; 6

B. 10; 15; 6

C. 20; 15; 10

D. 25; 15; 10

1

Minimum runway length for Reaper operations is feet.

3,000

5,000

4,000

7,000

1

Minimum runway width for MQ-9 operations is _ ft while minimum taxiway width is _ ft.

A. 50; 50

B. 50; 75

C. 75; 75

D. 75; 50

1

Crews may takeoff prior to a raised cable provided there is at least ___ ft of runway or minimum required takeoff distance (whichever is greater) prior to the raised cables.

3,000

1,000

7,000

5,000

1

Pilots will establish a normal glide path by _ feet AGL. Descent rates greater than feet per minute (FPM) below 200 feet AGL, greater than _ FPM below 50 feet AGL, airspeed more than __ KIAS below calculated approach speed, or a pilot-induced oscillation (PIO)/bounce require a go-around.

A. 1,500; 1,200; 600; 4

B. 200; 1,200; 800; 5

C. 500; 600; 200; 6

D. 600; 480; 200; 5

1

Minimum approach airspeed during an SFO traffic pattern is stall speed plus ___ KIAS.

A. 10

B. 15

C. 20

D. 25

1

[Manual Landings] When an alternate airfield is not an option or not available, aircrews will comply with the following ceiling and visibility requirements: the worst weather (TEMPO or prevailing) must be at or above a ceiling of _ or _ above the lowest compatible minima (whichever is greater), and a visibility of __ miles or _ mile(s) above the lowest compatible minima.

A. 1,500; 1,000; 3; 2

B. 800; 500; 3; 2

C. 800; 500; 2; 1

D. 1,500; 1,000; 3; 1

1

When actual or forecasted ceiling is below ___ feet and/or the visibility is less than _SM, aircrew members will increase recovery fuel to allow holding for____ hours over the destination at maximum endurance, at expected holding altitude, at calculated destination gross weight, and engine speed set to minimum, then expect to penetrate and land with normal recovery fuel.

A. 3,000; 3; 2

B. 3,000; 3; 4

C. 1,500; 3; 2

D. 1,500; 3; 4

1

Once airborne, if destination forecasts change and the aircrew is unable to adjust landing time (early or late) to meet requirements in paragraph 4.2.1.2.1, aircrew will increase recovery fuel to allow _____ hours of holding over the destination at maximum endurance speed, at expected holding altitude, at calculated destination gross weight, and engine speed set to minimum, then expect to penetrate and land with normal recovery fuel.

1

2

4

8

1

If revised forecast steady state winds at ETA (±1 hour) exceed flight manual limits, the PIC will, if fuel state and/or mission parameters allow, adjust ETA to either:

Overfly the forecast winds out of limits period by at least one hour

Terminate the mission to arrive at airfield of intended landing one hour before that forecast period

A or B

1

Whenever the outside air temperature is less than ___ degrees Fahrenheit, or the pilot is concerned about frost, ice, or snow, apply an ice retardant to the wings or inspect the aircraft for frost immediately prior to takeoff.

60

50

40

30

1

Do not take off or land with an RCR less than ___.

5

7

10

12

1

Handling characteristics of the MQ-9 on ice or snow are not optimum. On ice and/or snow, minimize throttle setting to that required to move (or sustain movement of) the aircraft and limit taxi speed to no more than ___ KGS.

4

7

9

12

1

Pilots will not taxi with nose-wheel steering, brake system, video path, or telemetry/datalink malfunctions

True

False

1

If encountering a landing gear malfunction and the gear are down, leave them down and do not make touch-and-go landings.

True

False

1

Unless otherwise briefed, SOs will announce altitude deviations exceeding ±_____ feet at the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), Final Approach Fix (FAF), and Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA), as well as when reaching Decision Height (DH) or the Missed Approach Point (MAP).

A. 1,000

B. 500

C. 200

D. 100

1

Ground lost link is declared when which of the following condition(s) is/are true at the time of lost link?

A. Airspeed is less than 50 KIAS

B. Landing gear is commanded down

C. Ground speed is less than 50 knots

D. All of the above

1

Selected warning messages related to the navigation system may appear when the aircraft is first powered up. They should disappear after about _____ minutes.

A. 2

B. 3

C. 5

D. 7

1

During AV Preflight, many navigation health and status parameters are presented. The main concern for the operator is that FCA # Stat is and FCA # Err is . Under normal conditions, this will take __ minutes. Do not move the aircraft until the appropriate codes are presented.

5 or greater; zero; 1-2

auto; 0000; 10+

F7; 20; 7-9

8880; absent; 5

1

GDT transmitter low power _____ .

A. is intended for maintenance purposes

B. can be used for taxi in some circumstances

C. is not intended for flight operation

D. All of the above

1

The shape of the GDT horn antenna (wide) allows the GDT to easily acquire the aircraft at approximately____ NM.

A. 5

B. 5.5

C. 6.5

D. 70

1

Extended use of nose lens heat at ___% or higher on the ground will cause the lens to crack.

A. 30

B. 60

C. 80

D. 100

1

Before starting the C-band link test, verify signal strengths are at least __ %.

A. 40

B. 50

C. 70

D. 80

1

Ground personnel can enter the -foot hazard boundary if there is an active RL and the SATCOM Antenna look angle is greater than degrees. Recommended answers.

A. 1; 5

B. 72; 10

C. 100; 50

D. 82; 30

1

If light-off does not occur within ___ seconds after 10% RPM, the start should be aborted.

10

15

25

60

1

Do not operate C-band directional transmitters on high power if ground personnel are within ____ feet of the antenna.

3

10

20

100

1

Confirm aircraft magnetic heading is within __º of exact runway heading when aircraft is aligned on runway centerline.

±1

±3

±5

±7

1

A visual check of the main wheel tires, brake assemblies, and nosewheel steering should be accomplished before landing. Also, confirm ____ indication is not present within the gear indicator on the pilot HUD.

"G"

"D"

"B"

"E"

1

Flaps are controlled manually until airspeed exceeds ___ KIAS.

1

During an abort, if it becomes apparent that the aircraft will depart the prepared surface

Condition lever - AFT

SAS - OFF

Payload - STOW

GDT - OFF

1

During a GDT switch, if GDT power is switched off before the GDT uplink Tx is turned off, it is not possible to regain link with the second GDT as the Tx on the first GDT remains on.

True

False

1

What must be considered if landing with a flat main tire?

Land on the side of the runway corresponding to the good main tire

Land with any crosswind on the side of the aircraft with the good main tire

A & B

None of the above

1

Maximum gear in transit speed is ____KIAS.

135

158

160

230

1

The maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing is knots. With symmetric or asymmetric loads the crosswind limit is knots.

5; 10

10; 13

20; 15

13; 15

1

When conditions of snow or ice exist, the ______ are usually more slippery than any other areas due to the melting and freezing of ice and snow at this location.

painted areas on the aircraft

approach ends of the runway

A & B

None of the above

1

In extreme hot weather conditions, above °F, malfunction or damage to avionics and electrical systems may occur due to overheating.

100

120

70

80

1

To lessen the possibility of entering a hydroplaning skid:

Use moderate touchdown speeds and a soft landing to minimize exposure time hydroplaning

Do not apply brakes until after wheels spin up and directional control has been firmly established

Land slightly off centerline to absorb the most water on contact

All of the above

1

Firefighting withdrawal distance for nonessential personnel is ____ if a burning aircraft is armed with GBU-12s or AGM114s.

300 feet

3,000 feet

4,000 feet

5,000 feet

1

Crews will ensure takeoff weather and forecasted landing weather +/- 1 hour (excluding temporary [TEMPO] groups) must be at, or greater than 800 feet and 2 SM, or 500 feet and 1 SM greater than the lowest compatible approach minimum (whichever is greater).

True

False

1

________ are responsible for submitting divert locations to MAJCOMs for approval as alternates, per AFMAN 11-202.

OG/CC's

SQ/CC's

MAJCOM/CC's

WG/CC's

1

OG/CCs may authorize operations within _NM of thunderstorms when necessary to meet operational requirements. Aircrew will maintain TO directed _NM distance unless specifically approved otherwise.

20 NM

25 NM

30 NM

35 NM

1

[2410] While using the endurance airspeed function of airspeed hold may lead to high AOA conditions(greater than 7 degrees) within 4-6 seconds. High AoA results from either inadequate power.

True

False

1

[2410] If the aircraft is in taxi path mode, lost link logic waits __ before shutting down the engine. However, if the aircraft is traveling faster than _, the engine is shut down immediately.

2 seconds; 10 KGS

7 seconds; 25 KGS

5 seconds; 15 KGS

15 seconds; 25 KGS

1

The launch enable button on the throttle is used to switch between taxi hold modes. Pressing the launch enable button while in taxi Heading hold will command taxi path hold and pressing the launch enable button while in taxi path hold will command taxi heading hold.

True

False

1

[2410] Bring the aircraft to a complete stop before performing a pilot takeover. Commanding a pilot takeover disables throttle position scaling for taxi. Disabling throttle position scaling sends true throttle position information to the aircraft resulting in an unintentional increase of taxi speed if the throttle is not set to ground idle. An unintended increase of taxi speed may cause the aircraft to depart the prepared surface.

True

False

1

Pilots will not disengage ATLC after beginning an IMC takeoff or approach, except for safety of flight or ATC direction.

True

False

1

[2410] Do not enable taxi path mode until ready to taxi aircraft. Enabling taxi path mode and remaining stationary puts stress on the nosewheel steering servo causing it to overheat. Aircrew should begin taxiing within __ minutes of enabling taxi path mode to prevent overheating the nosewheel steering servo.

2

4

3

5

1

[2410] GEN2IR. An error exists within the scaling of the IR nose camera, resulting in HUD overlay and flight path marker (FPM) offsets. The HUD overlay graphics and FPM may be up to 2 degrees off and may not reflect the actual aircraft attitude or aimpoint.

True

False

Pilot Closed Book MQF

Once a 'KNOCK IT OFF' is called, all participating aircraft will:

Normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate. Establish fuel quantity locally or ___ pounds (___ pounds for aircraft carrying 1 or more ER tank), whichever is higher.

Pilots will declare emergency fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with ___ pounds of fuel (measured from the header tank) or less.

Pilots will declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with ___ pounds of fuel or less

Once airborne if revised forecast steady state winds at ETA (±1 hour) exceed flight manual limits, the PIC will, if fuel state and/or mission parameters allow, adjust ETA to either _____ or ________.

Precipitation adversely affects aircraft performance and reduces visibility. If conditions permit, pilots should minimize exposure to all types of precipitation during all phases of flight.

For air-to-air operations, a coordination brief between all involved players shall include the following:

Aircrews will not takeoff if __________ turbulence is reported or forecast along the planned route of flight for clear air turbulence type III aircraft:

Abort the mission, regardless of apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, if any of the following occur:

The PIC is the final authority on the number of people allowed in the GCS (to include visitors) during operations.

Aircrew will perform operations check at least _____. These checks will include fuel level, oil level, electrical, datalink, engine parameters and emergency mission status at a minimum.

Change out one aircrew position at a time to ensure continuous monitoring of the aircraft. The ___ is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace aircrew positions.

Aircrew will not place items (checklists, charts, etc.) behind the ___ at any time.

The fuel heater will automatically shed when aircraft voltage drops below ___ V.

If DEEC fails, the backup mode torque schedule limits engine power as a function of OAT and density altitude, and will not allow a command greater than ___% torque.

Use TERMINATE procedures when safety of flight is not a factor, and in the following cases:

Decreasing oil level may be an indication of an oil leak (external or internal), excessive oil consumption, or oil foaming. What are some important points to remember?

The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart shows typical continuous amperage for each device. However, momentary in-rush current can be up to ___ times as much when a unit is first turned on.

During a forced landing (and operating on battery power), once the landing gear is lowered, battery life may preclude another full landing gear cycle prior to a successful touchdown.

Which of the following aircraft components draws the highest maximum amps?

What is the maximum allowable EGT in flight?

Briefings and debriefings should take place in the following order of priority: Face to face, Telephonic/electronic, Airborne.

____ or lower should be used when penetrating areas of turbulence.

Which item has the greatest drag index?

In altitude preference mode, changes to the power setting affect aircraft airspeed, while aircraft pitch responds to achieve a command altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will achieve the fastest possible airspeed while maintaining commanded altitude.

In speed preference mode, the aircraft adjusts pitch in an attempt to achieve the commanded airspeed and power settings are commanded to achieve the set altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will depart from the set altitude in order to maintain speed.

A _____ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in injury to personnel and/or loss of life if not carefully followed.

____ expresses a provision that is binding.

The EPO switch disconnects ____ from the GCS.

What does setting GCS Ignition to "Hot" do?

The EFIU monitors engine RPM received from the tach generator. If RPM drops below ____%, it automatically performs an in-flight restart.

RPA crew will notify the controlling agency that they are "LOST LINK."

If both electric fuel pumps fail, _____.

Batteries cannot be charged in flight.

The flaps are set automatically when airspeed exceeds ____KIAS or landing gear is up and ______.

Pilots must be alert to the possible consequences of deactivating SAS during flight. When SAS is deactivated, all safety limitations are immediately turned off.

With Cruise Mode ON, control sensitivity is reduced. Roll, pitch, and yaw gains are scaled with airspeed. Scaling limits roll to ±10° up to ±60° depending on airspeed.

Cruise mode is on when any hold mode is engaged, when stall protect is enabled, or anytime airspeed is over 120 KIAS.

Do not zero trims or pitch trims in flight. Doing so will result in a 125-knot airspeed hold command if airspeed hold is engaged.

The stall protect feature is the first level of stall protection provided by the autopilot. It automatically decambers the ailerons when AOA increases above +5º to prevent wing tips from stalling.

Upon lost link while jettisoning fuel, both jettison valves will remain open.

[2410] Stall protect is turned on and off by the pilot, but only takes effect at speeds below the limitations mentioned in the document.

[2410] While in the Inactive state, if AoA increases above 7 degrees it will enter the pushover state. In the pushover state, the aircraft reduces the pitch command until the AoA decreases below 3 degrees and airspeed increases above Vmin at which point it will transition to the recovery state.

Mission programming defaults to "fly-to" logic. For each mission leg during autonomous flight, the aircraft will use the programmed settings for the upcoming waypoint. Once the waypoint is passed, the settings for the next waypoint go into effect.

Lost link programming and the emergency mission will not activate if "Lost Link - OK" is set ON during an operational mission.

During a loss of command link, how much time passes until the RCM sends a reset command to the airborne modem?

If EGI or FCA ____ fails, the Ku SATCOM will not be able to aim properly, which may cause the aircraft to lose Ku-band link and go lost link.

The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the _____ and _____, while the Ku-Band SATCOM transmissions are called _____ and _____.

The IR nose camera has its own heater and fan to prevent fogging.

The ice detector signal stays on for _____ seconds after the ice has cleared.

The ____ mode (of the ARC-210) provides continuous scanning of four preset channels.

A ____ background (on a VIT data element) indicates an abnormal condition. This generally indicates that the value is out of the normal operating parameters and should be monitored.

A ____ background (on the VIT data element) indicates a warning condition. This generally indicates the value is in a critical condition and will require corrective action.

The deice system's automatic mode is intended to be used when the aircraft is operating autonomously. If the outside air temperature is less than ____, pitot heat is automatically turned on.

For an operational or emergency mission, when LOS TX #1 Inhibit is selected On, TX1 will be prevented from operating during that mission leg. What else is true about LOS TX Inhibit On?

In cruise mode, avoid flying the aircraft at AOA greater than ____ degrees. A high AOA can result in divergent roll oscillations.

The engine may exceed maximum allowable EGT when disengaging Altitude Hold with the throttle in the ____ position with DEEC in Backup Mode.

During an MCE gaining handover, the SATCOM command link is established when:

When flying without a lateral hold mode engaged, what is the maximum bank angle?

When executing a Push Button Handover, verify the ____ button is selected after handover data is verified.

It is possible for the actual nose camera lens inside the fuselage to fog during descent. Fogging of the actual nose camera lens cannot be prevented with the use of nose lens heat. The Nose IR lens heater may be used to clear the nose EO camera.

The UPS batteries will still be providing power if they were not turned off prior to evacuation.

With a left PSO rack (Pilot Station) failure or rack lock-up, the pilot has the option of sending the aircraft lost link prior to executing the PSO-1 Rack Lock-Up checklist.

Loss of control may be indicated by complete failure of the aircraft to respond to pilot control command. This may be caused by ____.

A stall condition may be indicated by ____.

Roll shaping limits the roll rate for pilot roll command inputs to reduce the possibility of lost link when rapid roll movements are used.

Attempting to lower the gear with less than ____volts may cause a complete loss of battery power, leading to a possible loss of aircraft.

Do not allow the engine to windmill between ___ and ___percent RPM. Operation within this range may cause engine damage.

The air start airspeed envelope is between ____ KIAS.

___ of the external fuel tank fuel is unusable.

Maximum bank angle for autopilot controlled turns in emergency missions is limited to ____. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.17 Note

The ATLC mission consists of ___ waypoints that define the runway and flight pattern around the airfield. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.2

The location of ___ is based off of a ___ glide slope and the height input for the waypoint. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1-132

After takeoff with Auto Landing Gear selected, the landing gear is commanded up when aircraft is above ___ and VSI greater than ___ for 3 seconds. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.5

Which two files are required for ATLC operation? Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.9

Once the aircraft's groundspeed is less than or equal to ___, ATLC logic will ramp the brakes to 100% over 2403 2 seconds or 2410 1 second. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.11

Transition to ABORT state is not allowed once the aircraft exceeds rotation speed or the commit point, whichever comes first.

If a takeoff abort has been triggered, ATLC will transition to this automated state and perform the following stopping procedure which includes the following commands:

Normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate. Establish fuel quantity locally or _ pounds (_ pounds for aircraft carrying 1 or more ER tank), whichever is higher.

Once airborne if revised forecast steady state winds at ETA (±1 hour) exceed flight manual limits, the PIC will, if fuel state and/or mission parameters allow, adjust ETA to either _ or ____.

The flaps are set automatically when airspeed exceeds KIAS or landing gear is up and __.

The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the ___ and _, while the Ku-Band SATCOM transmissions are called _ and ___.

Do not allow the engine to windmill between _ and _percent RPM. Operation within this range may cause engine damage.

The location of _ is based off of a _ glide slope and the height input for the waypoint. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1-132

After takeoff with Auto Landing Gear selected, the landing gear is commanded up when aircraft is above _ and VSI greater than _ for 3 seconds. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.5

For the ATLC lost link logic, the RCM will wait __ to establish if it is a temporary or permanent dropout. If after _, the link is still severed, the RCM will declare lost link.

The "LRD LP DES" MTS HUD indication will be displayed when the system measures the LRD energy output at approximately %, or less of normal operating power. It __ recommended to use the LRD to designate for a laser-guided munition while under an LP condition.

The LRD is PRF adjustable throughout the entire range of available PRF codes (-).

The minimum ripple interval for Hellfire launches is _ seconds for the same wing, and _ for opposite-wing releases.

For GBU-12s, squeeze the trigger at desired release point for release mode, and prior to bomb release point for deliveries.

Crews must positively identify the target prior to weapons release. For training sorties, crews will achieve positive identification either or by confirming through valid on-board/off-board cues.

is the sighting of a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position. Opposite of .

During a Straight-Through Egress maneuver, the pilot should use bank _and___ to cross-control the aircraft to fly straight over the target and slow the rate of rotation in the TGP.

Maintain safe taxi speeds at all times, not to exceed _ knots ground speed (KGS) on a taxiway, KGS on a runway, and less than __ KGS in a turn greater than 30 degrees.

Minimum runway width for MQ-9 operations is _ ft while minimum taxiway width is _ ft.

Pilots will establish a normal glide path by _ feet AGL. Descent rates greater than feet per minute (FPM) below 200 feet AGL, greater than _ FPM below 50 feet AGL, airspeed more than __ KIAS below calculated approach speed, or a pilot-induced oscillation (PIO)/bounce require a go-around.

During AV Preflight, many navigation health and status parameters are presented. The main concern for the operator is that FCA # Stat is and FCA # Err is . Under normal conditions, this will take __ minutes. Do not move the aircraft until the appropriate codes are presented.

Ground personnel can enter the -foot hazard boundary if there is an active RL and the SATCOM Antenna look angle is greater than degrees. Recommended answers.