Once a 'KNOCK IT OFF' is called, all participating aircraft will:
Normal recovery fuel is the fuel on initial or at the FAF at the base of intended landing or alternate. Establish fuel quantity locally or ___ pounds (___ pounds for aircraft carrying 1 or more ER tank), whichever is higher.
Pilots will declare emergency fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument final approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with ___ pounds of fuel (measured from the header tank) or less.
Pilots will declare minimum fuel to the controlling agency as soon as it becomes apparent that an aircraft will enter initial or start an instrument approach at the base of intended landing, or alternate if required, with ___ pounds of fuel or less
Once airborne if revised forecast steady state winds at ETA (±1 hour) exceed flight manual limits, the PIC will, if fuel state and/or mission parameters allow, adjust ETA to either _____ or ________.
Precipitation adversely affects aircraft performance and reduces visibility. If conditions permit, pilots should minimize exposure to all types of precipitation during all phases of flight.
For air-to-air operations, a coordination brief between all involved players shall include the following:
Aircrews will not takeoff if __________ turbulence is reported or forecast along the planned route of flight for clear air turbulence type III aircraft:
Abort the mission, regardless of apparent damage or subsequent normal operation, if any of the following occur:
The PIC is the final authority on the number of people allowed in the GCS (to include visitors) during operations.
Aircrew will perform operations check at least _____. These checks will include fuel level, oil level, electrical, datalink, engine parameters and emergency mission status at a minimum.
Change out one aircrew position at a time to ensure continuous monitoring of the aircraft. The ___ is the final authority in determining if circumstances are safe to replace aircrew positions.
Aircrew will not place items (checklists, charts, etc.) behind the ___ at any time.
The fuel heater will automatically shed when aircraft voltage drops below ___ V.
If DEEC fails, the backup mode torque schedule limits engine power as a function of OAT and density altitude, and will not allow a command greater than ___% torque.
Use TERMINATE procedures when safety of flight is not a factor, and in the following cases:
Decreasing oil level may be an indication of an oil leak (external or internal), excessive oil consumption, or oil foaming. What are some important points to remember?
The Aircraft Component Currents Requirements chart shows typical continuous amperage for each device. However, momentary in-rush current can be up to ___ times as much when a unit is first turned on.
During a forced landing (and operating on battery power), once the landing gear is lowered, battery life may preclude another full landing gear cycle prior to a successful touchdown.
Which of the following aircraft components draws the highest maximum amps?
What is the maximum allowable EGT in flight?
Briefings and debriefings should take place in the following order of priority: Face to face, Telephonic/electronic, Airborne.
____ or lower should be used when penetrating areas of turbulence.
Which item has the greatest drag index?
In altitude preference mode, changes to the power setting affect aircraft airspeed, while aircraft pitch responds to achieve a command altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will achieve the fastest possible airspeed while maintaining commanded altitude.
In speed preference mode, the aircraft adjusts pitch in an attempt to achieve the commanded airspeed and power settings are commanded to achieve the set altitude. If the aircraft is unable to maintain the set speed and altitude, it will depart from the set altitude in order to maintain speed.
A _____ indicates operating procedures, techniques, etc., which could result in injury to personnel and/or loss of life if not carefully followed.
____ expresses a provision that is binding.
The EPO switch disconnects ____ from the GCS.
What does setting GCS Ignition to "Hot" do?
The EFIU monitors engine RPM received from the tach generator. If RPM drops below ____%, it automatically performs an in-flight restart.
RPA crew will notify the controlling agency that they are "LOST LINK."
If both electric fuel pumps fail, _____.
Batteries cannot be charged in flight.
The flaps are set automatically when airspeed exceeds ____KIAS or landing gear is up and ______.
Pilots must be alert to the possible consequences of deactivating SAS during flight. When SAS is deactivated, all safety limitations are immediately turned off.
With Cruise Mode ON, control sensitivity is reduced. Roll, pitch, and yaw gains are scaled with airspeed. Scaling limits roll to ±10° up to ±60° depending on airspeed.
Cruise mode is on when any hold mode is engaged, when stall protect is enabled, or anytime airspeed is over 120 KIAS.
Do not zero trims or pitch trims in flight. Doing so will result in a 125-knot airspeed hold command if airspeed hold is engaged.
The stall protect feature is the first level of stall protection provided by the autopilot. It automatically decambers the ailerons when AOA increases above +5º to prevent wing tips from stalling.
Upon lost link while jettisoning fuel, both jettison valves will remain open.
[2410] Stall protect is turned on and off by the pilot, but only takes effect at speeds below the limitations mentioned in the document.
[2410] While in the Inactive state, if AoA increases above 7 degrees it will enter the pushover state. In the pushover state, the aircraft reduces the pitch command until the AoA decreases below 3 degrees and airspeed increases above Vmin at which point it will transition to the recovery state.
Mission programming defaults to "fly-to" logic. For each mission leg during autonomous flight, the aircraft will use the programmed settings for the upcoming waypoint. Once the waypoint is passed, the settings for the next waypoint go into effect.
Lost link programming and the emergency mission will not activate if "Lost Link - OK" is set ON during an operational mission.
During a loss of command link, how much time passes until the RCM sends a reset command to the airborne modem?
If EGI or FCA ____ fails, the Ku SATCOM will not be able to aim properly, which may cause the aircraft to lose Ku-band link and go lost link.
The transmission of the C-Band LOS datalink is referred to as the _____ and _____, while the Ku-Band SATCOM transmissions are called _____ and _____.
The IR nose camera has its own heater and fan to prevent fogging.
The ice detector signal stays on for _____ seconds after the ice has cleared.
The ____ mode (of the ARC-210) provides continuous scanning of four preset channels.
A ____ background (on a VIT data element) indicates an abnormal condition. This generally indicates that the value is out of the normal operating parameters and should be monitored.
A ____ background (on the VIT data element) indicates a warning condition. This generally indicates the value is in a critical condition and will require corrective action.
The deice system's automatic mode is intended to be used when the aircraft is operating autonomously. If the outside air temperature is less than ____, pitot heat is automatically turned on.
For an operational or emergency mission, when LOS TX #1 Inhibit is selected On, TX1 will be prevented from operating during that mission leg. What else is true about LOS TX Inhibit On?
In cruise mode, avoid flying the aircraft at AOA greater than ____ degrees. A high AOA can result in divergent roll oscillations.
The engine may exceed maximum allowable EGT when disengaging Altitude Hold with the throttle in the ____ position with DEEC in Backup Mode.
During an MCE gaining handover, the SATCOM command link is established when:
When flying without a lateral hold mode engaged, what is the maximum bank angle?
If executing a non-Push Button handover, it is necessary to update the datalink preset values found in Section 9; otherwise, the aircraft will retain the preset values for the losing GCS. Changing any of the preset values in the HDD will result in all presets values being resent to the aircraft; however, entering an identical value in the HDD for a preset will not update any values.
When executing a Push Button Handover, verify the ____ button is selected after handover data is verified.
It is possible for the actual nose camera lens inside the fuselage to fog during descent. Fogging of the actual nose camera lens cannot be prevented with the use of nose lens heat. The Nose IR lens heater may be used to clear the nose EO camera.
The UPS batteries will still be providing power if they were not turned off prior to evacuation.
With a left PSO rack (Pilot Station) failure or rack lock-up, the pilot has the option of sending the aircraft lost link prior to executing the PSO-1 Rack Lock-Up checklist.
Loss of control may be indicated by complete failure of the aircraft to respond to pilot control command. This may be caused by ____.
A stall condition may be indicated by ____.
Pitot heat does not guarantee absence of ice from the pitot-static system. Moisture can freeze in the unheated areas of the system. This malfunction may be indicated by an FCA PPT sensor warning message, abnormal attitude, abnormal airspeed indications, or a combination of any of these. These conditions may result in ______.
Roll shaping limits the roll rate for pilot roll command inputs to reduce the possibility of lost link when rapid roll movements are used.
Attempting to lower the gear with less than ____volts may cause a complete loss of battery power, leading to a possible loss of aircraft.
Do not allow the engine to windmill between ___ and ___percent RPM. Operation within this range may cause engine damage.
The air start airspeed envelope is between ____ KIAS.
___ of the external fuel tank fuel is unusable.
Maximum bank angle for autopilot controlled turns in emergency missions is limited to ____. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.15.17 Note
The ATLC mission consists of ___ waypoints that define the runway and flight pattern around the airfield. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.2
The location of ___ is based off of a ___ glide slope and the height input for the waypoint. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1-132
After takeoff with Auto Landing Gear selected, the landing gear is commanded up when aircraft is above ___ and VSI greater than ___ for 3 seconds. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.5
Which two files are required for ATLC operation? Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.9
Once the aircraft's groundspeed is less than or equal to ___, ATLC logic will ramp the brakes to 100% over 2403 2 seconds or 2410 1 second. Ref: TO 1Q-9(M)A-1 Chap: 1 Para: 1.18.11
Transition to ABORT state is not allowed once the aircraft exceeds rotation speed or the commit point, whichever comes first.
If a takeoff abort has been triggered, ATLC will transition to this automated state and perform the following stopping procedure which includes the following commands:
Which condition is NOT required for ATLC to initialize the arming state?
To perform a PILOT ABORT - TAKEOFF prior to the aircraft's rotation speed, what action does the Pilot need to take?
To perform a PILOT ABORT - LANDING, what action does the Pilot need to take?
The ____ is the point at which the stopping distance is greater than the distance to the rollout waypoint.
For the ATLC lost link logic, the RCM will wait ____ to establish if it is a temporary or permanent dropout. If after ___, the link is still severed, the RCM will declare lost link.
The "LRD LP DES" MTS HUD indication will be displayed when the system measures the LRD energy output at approximately __%, or less of normal operating power. It ____ recommended to use the LRD to designate for a laser-guided munition while under an LP condition.
If a weapon being laser guided is in flight when the LRD LP DES occurs, do not stop lasing. The LRD may still be lasing at very low power. Any chance of guidance will help prevent collateral damage resulting from an unguided weapon. Continue normal lasing procedures until weapon impact.
The LRD is PRF adjustable throughout the entire range of available PRF codes (____-____).
What brevity would be used if flying in clouds or an area of reduced visibility?
Which launch mode results in a more vertical attack trajectory?
Which launch mode results in a more horizontal attack trajectory?
A ____ weapon icon (on the bottom of the HUD) indicates the weapon is selected for release.
The minimum ripple interval for Hellfire launches is ___ seconds for the same wing, and ___ for opposite-wing releases.
What factor(s) are required for a commanded bomb to be released in CCRP mode?
The M310 launcher should not be exposed to temperatures below ____º Celsius.
AGM-114 missiles and M310 launchers cannot be jettisoned.
The ____ has an increased fragmentation warhead.
For GBU-12s, squeeze the trigger at desired release point for ____ release mode, and prior to bomb release point for ____ deliveries.
"PRF Code Mismatch" with a yellow indicator will be present if the PRF code set on the weapon and aircraft LRD do not match. A PRF mismatch with a yellow marker will ____.
Aircraft shall not be shut down until ____ has passed after last attempt to release forward-firing ordnance.
Crews must positively identify the target prior to weapons release. For training sorties, crews will achieve positive identification either ____ or by confirming ____ through valid on-board/off-board cues.
Crews will perform a battle damage/weapons check of weapons stations prior to or during return to base (RTB). Additionally, crews will perform this check following _____.
When carrying releasable ordnance, remain two switch positions away from release at all times prior to intentionally releasing live or inert ordnance. The two deselected switches will be the master arm switch and the trigger.
Aircrew will conduct dry attacks with the cocked LEMA/closed hooks selected while releasable freefall munitions are on the aircraft. Aircrew will not select the live or inert GBU until ready to release the live or inert ordnance.
Aircrew will not activate the cocked LEMA/closed hook station(s) ("fire") or other training munitions until all live or inert ordnance has been visually confirmed released with the Multi-Spectral Targeting System.
For inadvertent release, accomplish the following:
Type 3 Control - Once satisfied the attacking aircraft are correlated on the appropriate target(s), the JTAC/FAC(A) will provide attacking aircraft "CLEARED TO ENGAGE" or "Type 3, CONTINUE DRY". The attack aircrew will report _______ to the JTAC/FAC(A).
What does DEADEYE mean?
Leaving the AGM-114 missile powered on for extended durations may do what?
The WEZ displayed on the tracker is only representative of simulated missile capability, not operationally constrained parameters, and should not be used to determine the firing solution.
Setting ripple release intervals greater than ___ may have an adverse effect on missile accuracy due to the plume from the first missile.
______ acknowledges sighing of a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor).
______ means the specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.
______ is the sighting of a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position. Opposite of ______.
For a LoaL-H engagement the missile attempts to maximize impact angle in an attempt to achieve a hard coded impact angle of ___?
What type of holding game plan should be used to keep the aircraft at a constant bearing to the target and oriented either on-axis with the run-in, or off-axis from the run-in?
When briefing the 'Clearance' portion in WTARSEC, this includes which of the following:
During a Straight-Through Egress maneuver, the pilot should use bank _____and_______ to cross-control the aircraft to fly straight over the target and slow the rate of rotation in the TGP.
Maximum maneuvering category for RPAs is UNLIMITED as long as they remain within assigned altitude blocks.
All passed restrictions ____ be read back.
Which of the following manners can a JTAC/FAC(A) use to provide target location during the CAS Brief (9-line)?
Friendly grids should not be passed if it can be avoided. If necessary, use no more than ___ digits.
Danger close, Final Attack Headings, and TOTs are all examples of what during the CAS Brief (9-line)?
Maintain safe taxi speeds at all times, not to exceed ___ knots ground speed (KGS) on a taxiway,__ KGS on a runway, and less than __ KGS in a turn greater than 30 degrees.
Minimum runway length for Reaper operations is feet.
Minimum runway width for MQ-9 operations is ___ ft while minimum taxiway width is ___ ft.
Crews may takeoff prior to a raised cable provided there is at least ___ ft of runway or minimum required takeoff distance (whichever is greater) prior to the raised cables.
Pilots will establish a normal glide path by ___ feet AGL. Descent rates greater than____ feet per minute (FPM) below 200 feet AGL, greater than ___ FPM below 50 feet AGL, airspeed more than __ KIAS below calculated approach speed, or a pilot-induced oscillation (PIO)/bounce require a go-around.
Minimum approach airspeed during an SFO traffic pattern is stall speed plus ___ KIAS.
[Manual Landings] When an alternate airfield is not an option or not available, aircrews will comply with the following ceiling and visibility requirements: the worst weather (TEMPO or prevailing) must be at or above a ceiling of ___ or ___ above the lowest compatible minima (whichever is greater), and a visibility of ____ miles or ___ mile(s) above the lowest compatible minima.
When actual or forecasted ceiling is below _____ feet and/or the visibility is less than ___SM, aircrew members will increase recovery fuel to allow holding for____ hours over the destination at maximum endurance, at expected holding altitude, at calculated destination gross weight, and engine speed set to minimum, then expect to penetrate and land with normal recovery fuel.
Once airborne, if destination forecasts change and the aircrew is unable to adjust landing time (early or late) to meet requirements in paragraph 4.2.1.2.1, aircrew will increase recovery fuel to allow _____ hours of holding over the destination at maximum endurance speed, at expected holding altitude, at calculated destination gross weight, and engine speed set to minimum, then expect to penetrate and land with normal recovery fuel.
If revised forecast steady state winds at ETA (±1 hour) exceed flight manual limits, the PIC will, if fuel state and/or mission parameters allow, adjust ETA to either:
Whenever the outside air temperature is less than ___ degrees Fahrenheit, or the pilot is concerned about frost, ice, or snow, apply an ice retardant to the wings or inspect the aircraft for frost immediately prior to takeoff.
Do not take off or land with an RCR less than ___.
Handling characteristics of the MQ-9 on ice or snow are not optimum. On ice and/or snow, minimize throttle setting to that required to move (or sustain movement of) the aircraft and limit taxi speed to no more than ___ KGS.
Pilots will not taxi with nose-wheel steering, brake system, video path, or telemetry/datalink malfunctions
If encountering a landing gear malfunction and the gear are down, leave them down and do not make touch-and-go landings.
Unless otherwise briefed, SOs will announce altitude deviations exceeding ±_____ feet at the Initial Approach Fix (IAF), Final Approach Fix (FAF), and Minimum Descent Altitude (MDA), as well as when reaching Decision Height (DH) or the Missed Approach Point (MAP).
Ground lost link is declared when which of the following condition(s) is/are true at the time of lost link?
Selected warning messages related to the navigation system may appear when the aircraft is first powered up. They should disappear after about _____ minutes.
During AV Preflight, many navigation health and status parameters are presented. The main concern for the operator is that FCA # Stat is ____ and FCA # Err is __. Under normal conditions, this will take ____ minutes. Do not move the aircraft until the appropriate codes are presented.
GDT transmitter low power _____ .
The shape of the GDT horn antenna (wide) allows the GDT to easily acquire the aircraft at approximately____ NM.
Extended use of nose lens heat at ___% or higher on the ground will cause the lens to crack.
Before starting the C-band link test, verify signal strengths are at least __ %.
Ground personnel can enter the __-foot hazard boundary if there is an active RL and the SATCOM Antenna look angle is greater than __ degrees. Recommended answers.
If light-off does not occur within ___ seconds after 10% RPM, the start should be aborted.
Do not operate C-band directional transmitters on high power if ground personnel are within ____ feet of the antenna.
Confirm aircraft magnetic heading is within __º of exact runway heading when aircraft is aligned on runway centerline.
A visual check of the main wheel tires, brake assemblies, and nosewheel steering should be accomplished before landing. Also, confirm ____ indication is not present within the gear indicator on the pilot HUD.
Flaps are controlled manually until airspeed exceeds ___ KIAS.
During an abort, if it becomes apparent that the aircraft will depart the prepared surface
During a GDT switch, if GDT power is switched off before the GDT uplink Tx is turned off, it is not possible to regain link with the second GDT as the Tx on the first GDT remains on.
What must be considered if landing with a flat main tire?
Maximum gear in transit speed is ____KIAS.
The maximum crosswind component for takeoff and landing is __ knots. With symmetric or asymmetric loads the crosswind limit is __ knots.
When conditions of snow or ice exist, the ______ are usually more slippery than any other areas due to the melting and freezing of ice and snow at this location.
In extreme hot weather conditions, above °F, malfunction or damage to avionics and electrical systems may occur due to overheating.
To lessen the possibility of entering a hydroplaning skid:
Firefighting withdrawal distance for nonessential personnel is ____ if a burning aircraft is armed with GBU-12s or AGM114s.
Crews will ensure takeoff weather and forecasted landing weather +/- 1 hour (excluding temporary [TEMPO] groups) must be at, or greater than 800 feet and 2 SM, or 500 feet and 1 SM greater than the lowest compatible approach minimum (whichever is greater).
________ are responsible for submitting divert locations to MAJCOMs for approval as alternates, per AFMAN 11-202.
OG/CCs may authorize operations within ___NM of thunderstorms when necessary to meet operational requirements. Aircrew will maintain TO directed ___NM distance unless specifically approved otherwise.
[2410] While using the endurance airspeed function of airspeed hold may lead to high AOA conditions(greater than 7 degrees) within 4-6 seconds. High AoA results from either inadequate power.
[2410] If the aircraft is in taxi path mode, lost link logic waits ______ before shutting down the engine. However, if the aircraft is traveling faster than _____, the engine is shut down immediately.
The launch enable button on the throttle is used to switch between taxi hold modes. Pressing the launch enable button while in taxi Heading hold will command taxi path hold and pressing the launch enable button while in taxi path hold will command taxi heading hold.
[2410] Bring the aircraft to a complete stop before performing a pilot takeover. Commanding a pilot takeover disables throttle position scaling for taxi. Disabling throttle position scaling sends true throttle position information to the aircraft resulting in an unintentional increase of taxi speed if the throttle is not set to ground idle. An unintended increase of taxi speed may cause the aircraft to depart the prepared surface.
Pilots will not disengage ATLC after beginning an IMC takeoff or approach, except for safety of flight or ATC direction.
[2410] Do not enable taxi path mode until ready to taxi aircraft. Enabling taxi path mode and remaining stationary puts stress on the nosewheel steering servo causing it to overheat. Aircrew should begin taxiing within __ minutes of enabling taxi path mode to prevent overheating the nosewheel steering servo.
[2410] GEN2IR. An error exists within the scaling of the IR nose camera, resulting in HUD overlay and flight path marker (FPM) offsets. The HUD overlay graphics and FPM may be up to 2 degrees off and may not reflect the actual aircraft attitude or aimpoint.